Why is this Greek word so important to Christianity Today?
I refer to the Greek Word ANOMIE, from which we get the English word ANOMALY, which refers to something that deviates from a standard.
British Dictionary definition for anomie is
"lack of social or moral standards in an individual or society" and tells us that it is "Greek anomia lawlessness, from a- 1 + nomos law" You can read more here: http://www.dictionary.com/browse/anomy
In Christian arguments today, regarding what is being referred to by Paul, when he speaks of the law, (and yes, Paul uses "NOMOS" many times) some say that he is referring to the TORAH OF MOSES, while other say that it is certainly not that, contrasting it with THE LAW OF CHRIST. Why, for some reason, they believe that the law of Christ is something other than the law moses, I do not know. Most believe that Jesus came to fulfill the Law of Moses, the practicing of which, allowed him to become the perfect sacrifice that he was. So to differentiate between his law and the Torah is confusing. If anything he simply made it more strict. "You have heard it said ...., but I say to you, he who even looks at a woman to lust after her...."
Why is this even important?
Well it really is, because it helps to clear up questions like these ones:
1. IS THE 4TH COMMANDMENT, TO KEEP THE SABBATH HOLY, STILL APPLICABLE FOR BELIEVERS TODAY?
2. SHOULD WE EAT PORK?
By now we should know, as believers, that what the majority believe is often not biblically correct. "All we like sheep have gone astray."
Can we be sure? Well I believe we can. Firstly a thorough study of the whole scripture from Genesis to Revelation should make things clear, but clearly there is not enough reading going on. But, for me anyway, this little greek word can really help us out.
In 1 John 3 vs 4 and 5, the beloved disciple writes:
1Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
1Jn 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
It is perfectly clear from this scripture, that to sin, is to be lawless. So the question is simply, as with Paul, what law is being referred to? Presumably, if scripture should interpret scripture, they should be referring to the same law, when they use similar words, right?
SO WHAT LAW ARE THEY REFERRING TO?
In the above scripture, for "lawlessness" the apostle John uses a word that has been translated into greek, using the word: "anomia". And Paul uses "nomos", around 50 times.
Well here is the greek root word, which strong's claims anomia is derived from:
I print screened from my bible app on my phone. Both the definition given by Strong's and Thayer's Dictionary, two very well known and thought of sources for biblical reference agree. We are talking Jewish Mosaic Law here.
The only alternative would be for us to use the British dictionary or greek understandings of the day, which we began this article with. Even there divergence from moral law is being referred to. But we could include civil, criminal to moral law. To say that John, would be referring to civil or criminal law, rather than the Torah, when saying that "sin is lawlessness" is more than a little stretch. There is also a clear distinction, in scripture, between Christian morality and the moral laws of pagans, where idolatry might well be accepted, as would sexual immorality, as defined by the bible.
In closing, I ask you to consider these two scriptures, understanding, that at the time they were written, the TORAH was the main ingredient of scripture to those who wrote them. The "new testament" did not yet exist. These very scripture below, were not yet accepted as scripture and were written to concur with the "old testament" / Torah, which was seen as scripture, by the "new testament" writers.
2Pe 3:16 as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures.
2Ti 3:16 Every Scripture is God-breathed and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for instruction in righteousness,
My conclusion then, is that the law Yeshua referred to in the gospels, when he said "until heaven and earth pass away, not even one smallest letter or one tiny pen stroke shall in any way pass away from the law, untill all is fullfilled", is clearly the same law being referred to by Paul and John. So the the laws applicable to the tribe of Judah (the Jews), is the same law that is applicable to the Christian today. To ignore this is to open oneself to the spirit of lawlessness and we all know where that ends!
One last scripture, from the new testament to make this crystal clear, coming from the book of Revelations:
Rev 14:12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus.
Any reading of this book, should make you shudder to be in any other camp, but those who do the above.
Thank you for reading this post.